I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
The market cares about dollar returned vs dollar invested. If some piece in the middle of the chain goes up and end customer prices go up as well, that doesn’t directly affect investors at all.
The way it could and likely will affect investors is if people start buying fewer shoes, but that is a different process than what you are describing.
If I’m off base can you help me understand what you are saying?
Think in the extreme. $1 billion can probably earn more in a saving account than as a shoe that generates $50 profit after 2 weeks.
Now this analogy has a LOT of problems but the point is it directly affects investors, even if the interpolations inbetween are imperfect.
I hope you can see how spending $75 to make $150 revenue and $75 in profit is a much better position than spending $50 to make $100 in revenue and $50 in profit, if you are limited to how many transactions you can make in a day by physical infrastructure.
I think it's understandable for the store to charge more for their shoes, and for the stores to make more than $50/profit per shoe to cover higher capital investment and increased risk of loss, but I don't understand the logical leap where the store now can make 50% more profit per shoe.
Another perspective is that Footlocker would sell you those $25 Nikes for $300 if they could-- but if they tried, someone else would get active in the retail business and invest into a slightly less profitable operation (with lower margins) to eat into their market share.
But if the costs for everyone rise, raising the prices proportionally (instead of by fixed amount) makes total sense because it is not really gonna cost you market share (only decrease total market volume depending on consumer price sensitivity).
Note: We just observed those exact dynamics with Covid/Ukraine driven price increases, where retailers and other middlemen actually came out really good instead of sacrificing their margins to keep consumer costs down.
(If it's not bought on credit, there is still opportunity cost, since that money could have been used for something else.)
So basically the money a business uses to produce the next tranche of goods (so to speak) normally comes not from income from sales of the last tranche, but rather from external funding sources such as loans or capital injection from investors?
Is that really so common as to be universal and affect investor behavior like you suggest? Like for certain types of business, and especially for early stage businesses, I do expect this to be the case. But does it apply to the market broadly? Scary if so, since it seems like a destabilizing force.
Whereas a business that can figure out how to be paid significantly before it delivers can run on much slimmer margins.