I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
The market cares about dollar returned vs dollar invested. If some piece in the middle of the chain goes up and end customer prices go up as well, that doesn’t directly affect investors at all.
The way it could and likely will affect investors is if people start buying fewer shoes, but that is a different process than what you are describing.
If I’m off base can you help me understand what you are saying?
Another perspective is that Footlocker would sell you those $25 Nikes for $300 if they could-- but if they tried, someone else would get active in the retail business and invest into a slightly less profitable operation (with lower margins) to eat into their market share.
But if the costs for everyone rise, raising the prices proportionally (instead of by fixed amount) makes total sense because it is not really gonna cost you market share (only decrease total market volume depending on consumer price sensitivity).
Note: We just observed those exact dynamics with Covid/Ukraine driven price increases, where retailers and other middlemen actually came out really good instead of sacrificing their margins to keep consumer costs down.