I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.
The market cares about dollar returned vs dollar invested. If some piece in the middle of the chain goes up and end customer prices go up as well, that doesn’t directly affect investors at all.
The way it could and likely will affect investors is if people start buying fewer shoes, but that is a different process than what you are describing.
If I’m off base can you help me understand what you are saying?
I hope you can see how spending $75 to make $150 revenue and $75 in profit is a much better position than spending $50 to make $100 in revenue and $50 in profit, if you are limited to how many transactions you can make in a day by physical infrastructure.
I think it's understandable for the store to charge more for their shoes, and for the stores to make more than $50/profit per shoe to cover higher capital investment and increased risk of loss, but I don't understand the logical leap where the store now can make 50% more profit per shoe.