> How would they differentiate an EU government stealing the money from a customer who just didn't pay and say they did?
Because they would have been notified by a court beforehand and the fine would constitute an outstanding debt linked to a lost lawsuit.
Once that happens, the national collection agencies would take over and use the tools at their disposal, like collecting from customers directly, which is the equivalent of garnishing wages but for companies.
They would then receive regular updates about the remaining debt and what was already paid and by whom.
> Feel free to call up your credit card or power company and ask them what happens if you send them a payment but it gets seized by the government along the way. Their answer will be that you still owe them money.
If Google then refused service to the customers who's payments were redirected to that country's collection agencies, then additional punitive measure would be taken by the country.
Some of the punitive measure could be:
- growing interests on the outstanding debt
- blocking the service within the country or EU
- advertise that Google is delinquent and is refusing to pay it's debt to financial institutions
- prevent banks and financial institutions from loaning money or investing in Google
- configure an embargo for imports and exports towards Google
- extradition requests for C-suite or adding them to Interpol and Europol wanted people list
- etc.
> In your example the EU customers would be out the money, not Google. With no EU nexus (in your hypothetical) they cannot compel Google to provide services they were not paid for.
They can't force Google to provide services but Google will also lose that market (for the EU that's 450M people) and increasing punitive measures.
Also, Google refusing to pay would probably discourage financial institutions anywhere from servicing Google in the future and other countries from authorising Google on it's national market.