Unfortunately this subject is above my pay grade, so I gave up :)
Does it imply that some for some functions F(x) = y, you can compute x given the value of y without computing the inverse of F ?
If so, what constraints does F need to meet for this ?
I like how you've connected it to spin, but I still don't understand how that is a real physical property rather than a mathematical artifact.
I don't quite grasp the significance of your "different look". Can you suggest any other reading?
Don't feel like that. Even though I'm still a complete layman in everything with massive imposter syndrome, I never felt like I would "never" understand something, because some part of my brain intuitively realizes that if other humans were able to figure something out then I should be able to too.
If something doesn't make sense, it's because I haven't take the same "journey" from the point of view of those scientists who did, I'm just seeing the end result without everything that it's built from and on, and that's where the investment of time and effort comes in, which I am OK with not putting in for things that aren't immediately relative to me, but it's certainly not an "intelligence ceiling".
The topological argument gives a larger picture and probably better understanding, but it is definitely harder.