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125 points voxadam | 2 comments | | HN request time: 0s | source
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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45339423[source]
The FCC exists (in part) to enforce a certain morality on public broadcasters. Whatever we think about that today, that was a core responsibility of the FCC when it started and that still exists today.
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voxadam ◴[] No.45339475[source]
> The FCC is barred by law from trying to prevent the broadcast of any point of view. The Communications Act prohibits the FCC from censoring broadcast material, in most cases, and from making any regulation that would interfere with freedom of speech. Expressions of views that do not involve a “clear and present danger of serious, substantive evil” come under the protection of the Constitution, which guarantees freedom of speech and freedom of the press and prevents suppression of these expressions by the FCC. According to an FCC opinion on this subject, “the public interest is best served by permitting free expression of views.” This principle ensures that the most diverse and opposing opinions will be expressed, even though some may be highly offensive.

Source: https://www.fcc.gov/sites/default/files/the_fcc_and_freedom_...

"Last Reviewed: 12/30/19" (Trump's first term)

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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45339592[source]
Highly cherry-picked. The next paragraph says that FCC limits broadcast of indecent and profane material.

As I said, the FCC is allowed to enforce a certain morality. It seems clear that the morality being enforced would fall in line with the ruling power of the day.

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duskwuff ◴[] No.45340568{3}[source]
Obscenity, indecency, and profanity are narrowly defined by the FCC:

https://www.fcc.gov/consumers/guides/obscene-indecent-and-pr...

Kimmel's performance was clearly not obscene or indecent - it did not depict or describe sexual conduct or excretory organs - and it aired after 10 PM, so whether it was profane is irrelevant.

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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45340607{4}[source]
bad reading comprehension. here is what I said:

>As I said, the FCC is allowed to enforce a certain morality. It seems clear that the morality being enforced would fall in line with the ruling power of the day.

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duskwuff ◴[] No.45340768{5}[source]
And what you said was incorrect. Under 1A, the only content which the FCC can ban outright is obscenity, defined as per the document I linked; see FCC v. Pacifica for context.
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1. ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45348349{6}[source]
The FCC is allowed to enforce a certain morality. You actually agree with me here, since we both cited obscenity as a clear example.

I also assert that the morality being enforced by the FCC [in a given time period] will fall in line with the morality of the rulers of [that time period]. That is a descriptive statement.

Which part am I wrong about?

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2. duskwuff ◴[] No.45354302[source]
You are wrong about this part:

> The FCC is allowed to enforce a certain morality.

As I said previously, the FCC is bound by the First Amendment. They do not have the power to restrict speech, whether on grounds of "morality" or otherwise.

Obscenity is not considered speech as far as 1A is concerned, so the FCC is able to ban it. I disagree with this categorization, but it is what it is.