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125 points voxadam | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0s | source
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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45339423[source]
The FCC exists (in part) to enforce a certain morality on public broadcasters. Whatever we think about that today, that was a core responsibility of the FCC when it started and that still exists today.
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lenerdenator ◴[] No.45339534[source]
How is Jimmy's speech immoral?

A list of words you can't say is about morality; it's a drag but at least it's objective. You either said the word or you didn't.

This is far more subjective.

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ahmeneeroe-v2[dead post] ◴[] No.45339611[source]
[flagged]
lenerdenator ◴[] No.45339716{3}[source]
Okay, then the person he lied about can file a defamation suit. That still doesn't fall within the FCC's regulatory authority, so far as I can tell. They're not the arbiters of what is and isn't a lie; a judge or jury during the defamation trial is.
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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45340573{4}[source]
The FCC is well enabled to make judgment calls. Yes a network can bring that judgement call in front of an actual judge in a court of law. That doesn't mean the FCC lacks the authority for such calls, only that the judge likely has higher authority.
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lenerdenator ◴[] No.45342783{5}[source]
Do you have an example of the FCC enforcing action against a television broadcaster or personality for saying something materially similar to what Kimmel said, at the same time slot and same genre of programming, on the basis that it was false and/or defamatory, without any sort of pre-existing court case related to the same?
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ahmeneeroe-v2 ◴[] No.45342897{6}[source]
insane standard. how would you ever govern with that as your standard?
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1. lenerdenator ◴[] No.45347210{7}[source]
It's just looking for precedent for what you're saying.