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689 points taubek | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0.376s | source
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hx8 ◴[] No.43633780[source]
> But if we bump the cost of freight, insurance, and customs from $5 to, say, $28, then they wholesale the shoes to Footlocker for about $75. And if Footlocker purchases Nike shoes for $75, then they retail them for $150. Everyone needs to fixed percentages to avoid losses.

I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.

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1. conductr ◴[] No.43637131[source]
Margin as a % is a key metric, more so than margin as a $. It's not always sensical but it's dominant in the business/investment community.

For example, you may announce to public markets that your profit has increased $10M despite margins eroding from 50% to 30%. You will likely be punished in terms of stock price. This is because you sold a lot more or trimmed some expenses (which is short-term good) but you are also now more risky because if sales decrease you will more easily run into trouble breaking even/covering operating costs (which is long-term bad).