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689 points taubek | 2 comments | | HN request time: 0.448s | source
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hx8 ◴[] No.43633780[source]
> But if we bump the cost of freight, insurance, and customs from $5 to, say, $28, then they wholesale the shoes to Footlocker for about $75. And if Footlocker purchases Nike shoes for $75, then they retail them for $150. Everyone needs to fixed percentages to avoid losses.

I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.

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treis ◴[] No.43634187[source]
Because it's mostly wrong. Luxury goods like Nike's, iPhones, et.al. are priced to maximize revenue. If those started growing on trees for free it wouldn't appreciably change the price. They'd just bank the extra as profit.
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1. gorbachev ◴[] No.43634891[source]
The truly luxury Nikes, the ones that cost way more than $100 - $150 are not priced to maximize revenue, however. The evidence is their pricing on secondary markets, which often price them at multiples of the retail price.
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2. UncleEntity ◴[] No.43635218[source]
The difference between selling every shoe at $150 and selling less than every shoe at $300 (or whatever the secondary market is charging) probably gets tossed around in pricing meetings.

Plus, higher secondary market prices drive demand for the less desirable shoes as everyone can't afford to spend a week's wages on a pair of shoes but can stretch their budget for the still-kind-of-cool models. I'd go so far as to say the secondary market prices drive more demand for the lesser models as the cool kids want to be seen wearing what the rich cool kids are wearing.

I'm sure they spend a lot of time discussing what price they can charge without people openly revolting against their 'predatory pricing' strategies.