←back to thread

689 points taubek | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0.237s | source
Show context
hx8 ◴[] No.43633780[source]
> But if we bump the cost of freight, insurance, and customs from $5 to, say, $28, then they wholesale the shoes to Footlocker for about $75. And if Footlocker purchases Nike shoes for $75, then they retail them for $150. Everyone needs to fixed percentages to avoid losses.

I don't understand this paragraph. If Footlocker was okay with $50 profit/shoe, why do they need to claim $75 profit/shoe in their costs per shoe go up? The costs of handling the shoes, retail space, advertising, and labor are all fixed.

replies(18): >>43633824 #>>43634076 #>>43634140 #>>43634174 #>>43634187 #>>43634256 #>>43634280 #>>43634377 #>>43634446 #>>43634484 #>>43634560 #>>43634764 #>>43635127 #>>43635686 #>>43637131 #>>43640232 #>>43642701 #>>43644645 #
1. alangibson ◴[] No.43634140[source]
Short answer is return on investment. If I get $50 on a $75 investment when I used to get it on a $50 investment, my ROI goes down. My investors are now mad. They sell their stakes and buy into a company with a better ROI. My stock price goes down and now I'm mad.