←back to thread

108 points pseudolus | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0.29s | source
Show context
mcswell ◴[] No.45308024[source]
I am not understanding this: "It can’t directly predict who will develop Alzheimer’s, but it does identify who could be at a higher risk." I get the part that it can't "directly predict", but what does it mean to "identify who could be at a higher risk"? How was "higher risk" independently diagnosed in the study in order to show a correlation between higher risk according to this test, and higher risk according to some other test?
replies(1): >>45309751 #
1. dmbche ◴[] No.45309751[source]
"Patients with amnestic MCI—who have memory loss as their main symptom and are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s compared to people with non-amnestic MCI—had lower responses to the test, reports the Guardian’s Ian Sample. It can’t directly predict who will develop Alzheimer’s, but it does identify who could be at a higher risk."

It's correlated eith amnestic MCI, ehich itself correlated with higher risk of alzheimers(edit0:typo) (that's what I'm reading from the begining of the paragraph you quoted)