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1332 points Qem | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0.237s | source
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pxc ◴[] No.45268630[source]
Comments on this post are disabled for new accounts, but in the era of anti-BDS regulation and other measures aimed specifically at curtailing practical freedom of speech surrounding this conflict, can we really comment freely on this without anonymity? The vast majority (38/50) of US states have passed some form of anti-BDS legislation. We can also expect corporate retaliation against employees who speak about this issue in a "wrong way".
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prawn ◴[] No.45271798[source]
For anyone else not familiar with "anti-BDS":

"Anti-BDS laws are legislation that retaliate against those that engage in Boycott, Divestment and Sanctions. With regard to the Arab–Israeli conflict, many supporters of the State of Israel have often advocated or implemented anti-BDS laws, which effectively seek to retaliate against people and organizations engaged in boycotts of Israel-affiliated entities."

From Wikipedia. Also: "Not to be confused with Anti-BDSM laws."

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King-Aaron ◴[] No.45272447[source]
From a historical, economic, social perspective... Why does Israel hold so much power over the world?
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idle_zealot ◴[] No.45272536[source]
The theory I've been operating under is that Israel was created as a pretty bad solution to displaced Jews post-WWII, and operates essentially as a vassal state of the US's commercial military interests as a totally intractable perma-war in the region to ensure that even in lieu of other conflict taxpayer money can continuously be laundered to them in the form of expended munitions.

There's obviously a lot more going on from a social/religious perspective, but I'm prone to thinking of large-scale shifts and trends in terms of economic incentives.

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adastra22 ◴[] No.45273394[source]
Israel wasn't created from nothing post-WW2. It was already 50 years into building a jewish state in first the Ottoman Empire and then British Palestine. Holocaust refugees, although symbolically important, were never a large portion of Israel's immigrant population.

The UN declaration was recognition of reality on the ground. And was, btw, rejected by the Arab parties and doesn't carry the force of international law. Israel declared its independence irregardless of the resolution the following year.

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Hikikomori ◴[] No.45273477[source]
How much land did Jews own then and how much did they have after 48?
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dotancohen ◴[] No.45275080[source]
Jerusalem was Jewish majority decades before the British mandate began.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographic_history_of_Jerus...

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Hikikomori ◴[] No.45276782[source]
The answer is that jews owned around 6% of the land but got 56% in the partition.
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1. dotancohen ◴[] No.45277430[source]
And Arabs owned about 8% of the land. Still more than the Jews, but nowhere near the 94% implied by omission.

In any case, go look at the malaria maps and desert areas. Notice how they match up with the areas allocated to Jews. The Jews may have gotten allocated slightly more land, but it was not fertile or desirable land.