There's lots of people doing theory in ML and a lot of these people are making strides which others stand on (ViT and DDPM are great examples of this). But I never expect these works to get into the public eye as the barrier to entry tends to be much higher[1]. But they certainly should be something more ML researchers are looking at.
That is to say: Marcus is far from alone. He's just loud
[0] I'll never let go how Yi Tay said "fuck theorists" and just spent his time on Twitter calling the KAN paper garbage instead of making any actual critique. There seems to be too many who are happy to let the black box remain a black box because low level research has yet to accumulate to the point it can fully explain an LLM.
[1] You get tons of comments like this (the math being referenced is pretty basic, comparatively. Even if more advanced than what most people are familiar with) https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=45052227
Besides, it is patently false. Not every Markov chain is an LLM, an actual LLM outputs human-readable English, while the vast majority of Markov chains do not map onto that set of models.
I read your link btw and I just don't know how someone can do all that work and not establish the Markov Property. That's like the first step. Speaking of which, I'm not sure I even understand the first definition of your link. I've never heard the phrase "computably countable" before, but I have head "computable number," which these numbers are countable. This does seem to be what it is referring to? So I'll assume that? (My dissertation wasn't on models of computation, it was on neural architectures) In 1.2.2 is there a reason for strictly uniform noise? It also seems to run counter to the deterministic setting.
Regardless, I agree with Calf, it's very clear MCs are not equivalent to LLMs. That is trivially a false statement. But the question of if an LLM can be represented via a MC is a different question. I did find this paper on the topic[0], but I need to give it a better read. Does look like it was rejected from ICLR[1], though ML review is very noisy. Including the link as comments are more informative than the accept/reject signal.
(@Calf, sorry, I didn't respond to your comment because I wasn't trying to make a comment about the relationship of LLMs and MCs. Only that there was more fundamental research being overshadowed)
Neural networks are stateless, the output only depends on the current input so the Markov property is trivially/vacuously true. The reason for the uniform random number for sampling from the CDF¹ is b/c if you have the cumulative distribution function of a probability density then you can sample from the distribution by using a uniformly distributed RNG.
¹https://stackoverflow.com/questions/60559616/how-to-sample-f...
Or the inverse of this? That all Markov Chains are Neural Networks? Sure. Well sure, here's my transition matrix [1].
I'm quite positive an LLM would be able to give you more examples.
> the output only depends on the current input so the Markov property is trivially/vacuously true.
It's pretty clear you did not get your PhD in ML. > The reason for the uniform random number
I think you're misunderstanding. Maybe I'm misunderstanding. But I'm failing to understand why you're jumping to the CDF. I also don't understand why this answers my question since there are other ways to sample from a distribution knowing only its CDF and without using the uniform distribution. I mean you can always convert to the uniform distribution and there's lots of tricks to do that. Or I mean the distribution in that SO post is the Rayleigh Distribution so we don't even need to do that. My question was not about that uniform is clean, but that it is a requirement. But this just doesn't seem relevant at all.That's great, so you should be able to spell out the error & why it is an error. Go ahead.