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Trade in War

(news.mit.edu)
94 points LorenDB | 1 comments | 28 Aug 25 14:58 UTC | HN request time: 0.2s | source
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rho4 ◴[01 Sep 25 08:41 UTC] No.45090791[source]▶
I for example do not understand how it can be possible that Ukraine transports Russian gas on its pipeline network. Not sure if that's still the case though.
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1. mamonster ◴[01 Sep 25 09:20 UTC] No.45091000[source]▶
1) Because the transport fee that Gazprom used to pay to Ukraine was one of the safest rents in the (very dysfunctional) Ukrainian economy(the other being the Odessa port). If you really want to go that far back, the gas dispute in 2008-2009 is when things really started going bad between Russia and Ukraine.

2) Because this gas was needed in Europe.

I would go as far as to say that if there is any peace in Ukraine within the next few years then Ukraine will probably demand that if any gas goes from Russia to Europe it would go through Ukraine.