> Not when it's same by ratio
Of course, but if we consider ground truth, there's very few salaried workers in Europe making 75k unless they have political positions.
So if the American employer is cheating their workers out of 20% of their salary by making them work unpaid overtime. What should we say about the European employer who follows overtime rules to the book, but pays their workers 50% of what the American employer does?
> And then we haven't even taken cost of living...
Irrelevant. This is a transaction strictly between employer and employee. Reimbursement should be according to what the worker delivers to the company, and European workers are probably on about the same level of productivity as American.