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108 points BerislavLopac | 3 comments | | HN request time: 0.689s | source
1. Leszek ◴[] No.43716772[source]
Something I find fascinating is that we know that P != EXPTIME, and that P <= NP <= EXPTIME, but have managed to prove neither P != NP nor NP != EXPTIME. NP has to be somewhere between them but we have no idea where.
replies(1): >>43718347 #
2. macleginn ◴[] No.43718347[source]
"NP has to be somewhere between them but we have no idea where" – I guess that this state of affairs won't change much even if we prove P != NP?
replies(1): >>43719210 #
3. dgs_sgd ◴[] No.43719210[source]
I think that's unclear. A constructive proof of P != NP might yield insights into the "gap" between them.