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688 points crescit_eundo | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0s | source
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snickerbockers ◴[] No.42144943[source]
Does it ever try an illegal move? OP didn't mention this and I think it's inevitable that it should happen at least once, since the rules of chess are fairly arbitrary and LLMs are notorious for bullshitting their way through difficult problems when we'd rather they just admit that they don't have the answer.
replies(2): >>42145004 #>>42145793 #
sethherr ◴[] No.42145004[source]
Yes, he discusses using a grammar to restrict to only legal moves
replies(4): >>42147380 #>>42148708 #>>42150800 #>>42152205 #
1. thaumasiotes ◴[] No.42152205[source]
> he discusses using a grammar to restrict to only legal moves

Whether a chess move is legal isn't primarily a question of grammar. It's a question of the board state. "White king to a5" is a perfectly legal move, as long as the white king was next to a5 before the move, and it's white's turn, and there isn't a white piece in a5, and a5 isn't threatened by black. Otherwise it isn't.

"White king to a9" is a move that could be recognized and blocked by a grammar, but how relevant is that?