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275 points swores | 5 comments | | HN request time: 0.434s | source
1. TehCorwiz ◴[] No.40173202[source]
If the cost of developing the drug were relevant then every country would pay roughly the same for the same drug from the same company. They don't.
replies(3): >>40173383 #>>40173411 #>>40173434 #
2. ◴[] No.40173383[source]
3. foota ◴[] No.40173411[source]
This doesn't make sense. Pricing could very reasonably vary by country in order for a company to try to capture more revenue though price discrimination.

This says nothing about whether this is done to cover the costs of development or not. Only an altruistic company wouldn't vary the prices.

4. acover ◴[] No.40173434[source]
Why? A monopoly would want to charge more to richer customers.
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5. willcipriano ◴[] No.40173721[source]
The poorest customers would just resell what they buy to the richest ones in a functioning market.