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ICJ orders Israel to prevent genocide in Gaza, stops short of ordering ceasefire

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517 points xbar | 1 comments | 26 Jan 24 14:35 UTC | HN request time: 0.409s | source
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voisin ◴[26 Jan 24 14:55 UTC] No.39143281[source]▶
Perhaps I am unlearned in this area but I am unclear why the Jewish state, after its people experienced the atrocities of World War II, would act in this manner toward the Palestinians. Can anyone shed light on this? I understand completely the need to rid the world of Hamas terrorists, but in the process they have shown a reckless disregard (to put it mildly) for Palestinian people and their wellbeing.
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smoothjazz ◴[26 Jan 24 14:57 UTC] No.39143315[source]▶
It's not about religion, it's about occupation. Zionists got permission to occupy the land from the British with The Balfour Declaration then started the invasion in full in 1948 with Nakba. When you occupy someone's land, there can never be peace until they get their land back or are fully exterminated or controlled militarily. This is why colonization most often leads to genocide or permanent apartheid.
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jdietrich ◴[26 Jan 24 19:48 UTC] No.39147232[source]▶
>Zionists got permission to occupy the land from the British with The Balfour Declaration

This is not an accurate representation. Jewish people were given the legal ability to purchase land in Mandatory Palestine. The vast majority of Palestinian Arabs were tenant farmers or landless labourers. Jewish land purchases inevitably led to the displacement of these tenants, but this was the lawful outcome of a lawful land sale.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish_land_purchase_in_Palest...

The issues surrounding occupation of land after the 1948 and 1967 wars are significantly more complex and arguably do involve violations of international law by Israel.

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Sporktacular ◴[26 Jan 24 21:23 UTC] No.39148626[source]▶
So what if that's true (and it's not entirely true - there was forced takeovers of land, and there continues to be land theft in the West Bank today).

If I sell you my land, does that make it right for you to form a separate state with it? Perhaps I would rethink that decision with the advance knowledge of your intentions.

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jdietrich ◴[26 Jan 24 22:29 UTC] No.39149643[source]▶
When Israel declared independence, that land was not governed by any state due to the withdrawal of the British Mandate. The Palestinians had previously been offered statehood through the 1947 UN Partition Plan, but had rejected it. They did not take steps to establish their own state in anticipation of the British withdrawal.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/End_of_the_British_Mandate_for...

The majority of land purchases were made by the Jewish National Fund. Their aspiration to form a state was explicit and overt.

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1. Sporktacular ◴[27 Jan 24 08:40 UTC] No.39153798[source]▶
Sorry, you're saying there were and are no forced expulsions of Palestinians?