To me, even if they used information they had and we didn't, I don't see who the "victim" of this crime would be. It truly sounds like a "but it's unfair" argument and I'd really like to know why I'm wrong here.
Thanks in advance
In some ways a crime like this is worse for not harming any particular person directly. First, because people often convince themselves that not having a clear victim means it's victimless and therefore okay, which is where your line of thought seems to be going. Second, because the lack of a clear victim means such crimes can go relatively unnoticed, unmitigated, and under-punished.
IMO, white collar crimes (and not just the explicitly illegal ones) are an insidious disease on society. The indirectness of the harm serves as a kind of camouflage against peoples moral judgement, but that's a failure of judgement. It's like falling for that trick that kids do where they spread their food all over their plate so it looks like they ate more of it.