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256 points hirundo | 1 comments | | HN request time: 0.198s | source
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rahimnathwani ◴[] No.35514446[source]
This blog post asserts that IQ scores didn't drop for the population as a whole, and that the drop for each individual group is due to changing composition of that group:

https://emilkirkegaard.dk/en/2023/03/new-study-didnt-really-...

For example, if the % of people who do a postgraduate degree goes doubles, it's no longer such a select group, so you'd expect the average IQ of postgraduate degree holders to go down. This doesn't mean IQ scores are going down for the population as a whole.

One more thing: why do so many papers that present charts that show how a mean or median changes over time, without also presenting charts that show how the distribution has changed over time?

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tptacek ◴[] No.35517739[source]
It's worth looking up whose blog this is before trusting any of its analysis.
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extant_lifeform ◴[] No.35518570[source]
Bravo, I was gonna post this guy's 'bio' but someone beat me to it
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cubefox ◴[] No.35523842[source]
What "bio"? So far I have only seen far left dominated opinion pieces, who obviously hate that he engages with taboo topics like race and IQ.
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extant_lifeform ◴[] No.35525978[source]
Anyone who contradicts this notion that some races are better than others and ergo those other "mud" races need to be exterminated, is too far left for retards like you. Go bait someone else.
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1. cubefox ◴[] No.35526670[source]
That's not the right way to think about it. It is an empirical question whether there are significant heritable IQ differences between populations with similar ancestry. If such differences exist, then this is a very important fact to know about the world. We always want to believe the truth, whatever it may be. Labelling possibly true hypotheses as racist doesn't help. Ethical questions are different from empirical ones.