I don’t know the truth of the matter and Seymour could be right. We just can’t tell from the evidence provided.
I don’t know the truth of the matter and Seymour could be right. We just can’t tell from the evidence provided.
I disagree.
The most logical explanation is tha Russia did it as a capacity demonstration and threat against Baltic Pipe to pressure contries in the region regarding Ukraine, but that, like all their threats against the West over Ukraine policy so far, the threat was hollow.
Russia destroying their own pipelines (both NS 1 and the new NS 2 were sabotaged) looks like them shooting themselves in both feet at once. Like doing 'capacity demonstration' by nuking the Kremlin... They could, but would that be a likely scenario?
Many, if not most, expert observers strongly suspect the US for a reason.
https://www.reuters.com/business/energy/where-does-germany-s...
Joe talks a lot:
"If Russia invades, that means tanks and troops crossing the border of Ukraine again, then there will be no longer a Nord Stream 2, we will bring an end to it." -- Joe Biden, Feb 2022, with the German's Chancellor standing next to him! [1]
So at the very least the US thought that they indeed had control over that "major NATO ally" and could make thinly veiled threats to their face. Why you think that the US would be above sabotage on a matter of strategic national interests is unclear.
[1] https://apnews.com/article/russia-ukraine-joe-biden-vladimir...
It is inconceivable that Biden made that comment without consulting Germany. Also it was primarily Nordstream1 that was attacked.
Gas prices spiked and it seems likelier that Russia was behind it. At least to me. I don’t know the truth of the matter.
Washington defeated Germany and Japan in the 1940s and proceeded to demilitarize them and occupy them with its own forces. This is historically standard military practice. It is not a "nice gesture" from Washington. It was all part of a coherent strategy to contain and confront the rival USSR, around which Germany and Japan represent critical nodes.
Yes, part of Germany was occuppied by the Western Allies until 1955. And there were sone technical restrictions on the sovereignty of Germany-as-a-whole until the 2+4 Treaty went into full effect in 1991.
But even the later of those dates was almost 17 years before Obama became President.
> It was all part of a coherent strategy to contain and confront the rival USSR
The occupation of the Axis Powers by the Allies, including the USSR, was not part of a strategy to contain the USSR. It may have formed part of the context of such a strategy, but that’s a different thing.